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Exam Code: CVA
Exam Name: NACVA (Certified Valuation Analyst (CVA))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 251 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The United State is by far the world leader in markets for both publicly traded securities and
closely held businesses and business interests. Two factors have combined to accelerate the
spread of U.S technology in financial appraisals and market throughout the world. Which of
the following is/are of those factors?
A. Rapidly increasing international flow of capital
B. Growing privatization of formerly socially owned businesses in almost every country of
the world.
C. Increased inflation in major parts of the world
D. Secondary market securities trading phenomenon
Answer: A, B

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NO.2 When specifying, who is to provide the valuation services, the important distinction is
whether the client is retaining the appraisal firm itself or the individual appraiser employed
by the firm. The common practice is:
A. To retain the individual appraiser rather than the firm
B. To retain the firm rather than individual appraiser, even though the expert witnesses testify
based upon their individual expertise and opinions
C. To retain the individual since the firm is responsible for completing the assignment
regardless of impairment the individual’s capability to perform the work
D. To retain firm as such practice also tends to provide discontinuity in retention of working
papers and related records, marking them accessible if they are needed months or even yearslater
as they frequently are
Answer: B

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NO.3 The definition of specific business interest can be broken down into two broad questions:
1.-Is the valuation to be a valuation of assets or a valuation of securities?
2)-In either case, exactly what assets or what securities are subject to valuation? By securities
in above context, we mean:
A. Ownership interests; such as marketable securities and commercial papers
B. Ownership interests; such as stock, dept and partnership interests
C. Partnership interests
D. Equity or invested capital
Answer: B

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5. Valuation of
must be specified. For example, the assignment might include
language such as” ...engaged to estimate the fair market value of the fixed assets, inventory,
and goodwill, on a going-concern basis of...”
A. Assets
B. Securities
C. Cooperatives
D. Partnerships
Answer: A

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NO.4 S corporations, limited liability corporations, limited liability partnerships, family limited
partnerships, professional corporations, real estate investment trust, investment companies
registered under the investment company act of 1940 and personal holding companies are the
examples of:
A. General and limited partnerships
B. Cooperatives
C. Entities’ structures giving rise to special legal or tax considerations (specified structure)
D. Companies following valuation standards
Answer: C

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Exam Code: MSC-321
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Designing and Deploying Advanced Data Capture (ADC) Solution)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The ability of a scanner to decode a barcode even when there is relative motion between the
barcode and the scanner is called:
A. Ambient light immunity
B. Aiming pattern
C. Omni-directionality
D. Motion Tolerance
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following communication interfaces CANNOT be used by an application to
senddata/scanner commands bi-directionally?
A. USB SNAPI
B. RS-232SSI
C. USB
D. OPOS
E. Keyboard Wedge
Answer: E

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NO.3 Which of the following scanning technologies has the highest tolerance for reading bar codes
from items in motion?
A. Linear Imager
B. Laser Scanner
C. Area Imager
D. Contact Scanner
Answer: B

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NO.4 Data Matrix bar codes are typically found on which of the following items?
A. Books
B. Printed Circuit Boards (PCB)
C. Package Sorting
D. Fruits and Vegetables
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following bar codes is NOT considered two dimensional bar code?
A. Code 39
B. PDF 417
C. QR Code
D. Data matrix
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following scanning technologies can read laser etched barcodes?
A. Long Range Scanners
B. Laser Scanners
C. DPM Scanners
D. CCD Scanners
Answer: C

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NO.7 You have a government customer that just opened a bid in Latin America for a company with
1,000 convenience stores located in small cities across Mexico and EI Salvador. The customer
requires the support of both 1 and 2D scanning with the same device and a minimum of 2 per store.
The customer is price sensitive. Which of the following scanner combinations would you
recommend?
A. LS1203 - Corded
B. LS2208 - Corded
C. LS4208 - Corded
D. LS4278 - Cordless
E. DS4208 - Corded
F. DS6707-SR - Corded
G. DS6878-SR-Cordless
H. DS9808-SR - Corded
Answer: E

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NO.8 You have a Request for Proposal for a customer that will be receiving cars in a car rental
location, customer wants to read the car's VIN barcode, take an image of the license plate and
record customer specific information. The customer is price sensitive and they don't want to buy a
mobile computer. Which of the following items would you recommend for this customer?
A. LS300S
B. LS920Si
C. MK500 touch screen
D. MT2090 with 2D imager
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following bar code types is readable by a 1D scanner?
A. Maxicode
B. Data matrix
C. QR Code
D. Interleaved 2 of 5
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following devices uses many rows of pixels to help it decode poorly printed or
damaged barcodes?
A. Linear Imager
B. Laser Scanner
C. Area Imager
D. Contact Scanner
Answer: C

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Exam Code: S90-02A
Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Technology Concepts)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 92 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is true.?
A. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes reliability levels associated with databases required to persist
state data.
B. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes the issuance and delivery of positive and negative
acknowledgement messages.
C. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes SOAP headers related to atomic transactions with rollback
features.
D. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes the expression of service composition logic, but only for
SOAP-based Web services.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A SOAP-based Web service is required to transmit an XML-based invoice document to a REST
service. However, the SOAP-based Web service is designed to represent invoice data using an XML
schema that is different from the XML schema used within the REST service. How can the disparity
between the XML schemas, used by these two services, be overcome so that they can exchange the
invoice document?
A. A layer of data format transformation logic needs to be introduced based on mashup technologies,
such as DTD and WS-Transform.
B. A layer of protocol transformation logic needs to be introduced based on Web technologies, such as
HTTP and FTP.
C. A layer of data model transformation logic needs to be introduced, based on XML technologies, such
as XSLT.
D. There is no technique or technology for overcoming differences between XML schemas.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The XML language is expressed through the use of:
A. elements or tags
B. databases or repositories
C. services or components
D. service compositions or orchestrations
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is true?
A. An enterprise service bus commonly provides service broker-related features that allow two services
using different data models (that represent the same business document) to communicate with each
other.
B. An enterprise service bus commonly provides service broker-related features that allow two services
using different communication protocols to communicate with each other.
C. An enterprise service bus commonly provides service broker-related features that allow two services to
communicate even though they use different communication protocols and different data models (that
represent the same business document).
D. All of these statements are true.
Answer: D

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NO.5 I would like to extend my WSDL definition to include a programmatically consumable statement that
communicates that upon receiving a message the service will add an entry to an event log. Which
technology should I use?
A. Mashup
B. XSLT
C. REST
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Data model transformation is a core service function that can be performed by proven technologies
that have been around for years. Therefore, it is recommended that you look for opportunities to apply this
technology wherever possible, especially in larger, more complex service compositions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 A __________________ establishes a common access point generally based on HTTP methods used
by __________________.
A. WSDL definition, SOAP-based Web service
B. uniform contract, REST services
C. XML schemas, components
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.8 XML schemas are comparable to database records. Therefore, XML documents that are based on
XML schemas are comparable to database data models.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.9 WS-Addressing is most commonly associated with __________________ functionality.
A. process management
B. policy enforcement
C. message routing
D. choreography
Answer: C

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NO.10 A SOAP message is an XML document that is comprised of a set of pre-defined parts. Which of the
following are parts that can be found in a SOAP message?
A. Envelope
B. Body
C. Header
D. Footer
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 When two compatible SOAP-based Web services need to exchange an XML document that is
compliant with the XML schema shared by both services, then:
A. A data model transformation technology, such as XSLT, must be used to enable the data exchange.
B. A new XML schema must be created to overcome the disparity between how each service defines the
data model for the XML document.
C. A WS-Policy definition must be created to establish rules that address any differences in the XML
document exchange.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following are associated with the functionality provided by a typical enterprise service
bus?
A. reliable message delivery
B. intermediate message routing
C. temporary storage of messages in queues
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.13 SOAP-based Web services can be designed for use within traditional RPC-style distributed solutions
or for use in service-oriented solutions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.14 XML can be used to structure data passed between REST services, but REST introduces rules that limit
the extent to which XML elements and attributes can be nested.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.15 When designing REST services within a given domain, you establish __________________ that are
represented by unique identifiers, usually in the format of __________________.
A. resources, HTTPs/HTTPSs
B. mashups, HTTPs/HTTPSs
C. resources, URLs/URIs
D. mashups, URLs/URIs
Answer: C

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NO.16 If Service B is invoked by Service A and then Service B invokes Service C and all of this happens as
part of the same service activity, then Service B would be considered:
A. an intermediary
B. a service agent
C. an ultimate receiver
D. an initial sender
Answer: A

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NO.17 Identify what is wrong with the following statement: "I have a single Calculator component that provides
basic math functions. I'm exposing this component as a component-based service for internal service
consumers that are also component-based. I'm exposing this component as a SOAP-based Web service
for internal and external service consumers that support SOAP messaging. I'm also exposing this
component as a REST service for external service consumers that prefer to access its functions via HTTP
methods. I'm also exposing this component as a service agent for service consumers that support explicit
invocation via a service contract."
A. A single component cannot be exposed as a component-based service, a SOAP-based Web service
and a REST service at the same time.
B. SOAP-based Web service consumer programs cannot be both internally and externally located.
C. The uniform contract required by REST services does not support the use of HTTP methods.
D. Service agents are event-driven and are therefore not explicitly invoked via a service contract.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The WS-I is an industry standards organization that provides basic profiles to help foster
interoperability among solutions based on XML and Web services industry standards.
B. OASIS is an industry standards organization that has developed a number of important technology
specifications, including WS-BPEL and UDDI.
C. The W3C is a standards organization that has developed a number of important technology
specifications, including SOAP, WSDL, and WS-Addressing.
D. The OAS-C is an industry standards organization that has developed a number of important
technology specifications, including WS-Security and XML Schema.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Service activities represent runtime activity that occurs within the underlying service logic.
B. Service activities represent design-time message exchanges that are established between
SOAP-based Web services and defined as part of the operation definition within the WSDL definition.
C. Service activities represent runtime activity that occurs between services.
D. Service activities represent runtime activity that occurs between complex and simple XML Schema
types.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Individual service contracts do not need to be published for SOAP-based Web services. Instead, they
use a uniform contract.
B. Individual service contracts do not need to be published for REST services. Instead, they use a
common uniform contract.
C. Components provide published contracts, but when building services as components, components
must use a uniform contract instead.
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: S90-19A
Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (Advanced SOA Security)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 83 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 An alternative to using a ___________ is to use a __________.
A. Public key, private key
B. Digital signature, symmetric key
C. Public key, key agreement security session
D. Digital signature, asymmetric key
Answer: C

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NO.2 The Service Perimeter Guard pattern has been applied to help avoid denial of service attacks for a
service inventory. As a result, services within the service inventory are only accessible via a perimeter
service However, denial of service attacks continue to succeed and services within the service inventory
become unavailable to external service consumers. What is the likely cause of this?
A. The application of the Service Perimeter Guard pattern needs to be combined with the application of
the Message Screening pattern in order to mitigate denial of service attacks.
B. The perimeter service itself is the victim of denial of service attacks. As a result, none of the services
inside the service inventory can be accessed by external service consumers.
C. The Trusted Subsystem pattern should have been applied so that each service has a dedicated trusted
subsystem.
D. The Service Perimeter Guard pattern does not help avoid denial of service attacks.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How can the use of pre-compiled XPath expressions help avoid attacks?
A. Pre-compiled XPath expressions execute faster and therefore help avoid denial of service attacks.
B. Pre-compiled XPath expressions reduce the chance of missing escape characters, which helps avoid
XPath injection attacks
C. Pre-compiled XPath expressions contain no white space, which helps avoid buffer overrun attacks
D. They can't because XPath expressions cannot be pre-compiled
Answer: B

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NO.4 The use of XML schemas for data validation helps avoid several types of data-centric threats.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Service A needs to be designed so that it supports message integrity and so that only part of the
messages exchanged by the service are encrypted. You are asked to create the security policy for this
service. What type of policy assertions should you use?
A. Token assertions
B. Protection assertions
C. Security binding assertions
D. Service A's security requirements cannot be expressed in a policy
Answer: B

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NO.6 When designing XML schemas to avoid data-centric threats, which of the following are valid
considerations?
A. The maxOccurs attribute needs to be specified using a restrictive value.
B. The <xsd:any> element needs to be avoided.
C. The <xsd:restriction> element can be used to create more restrictive user-defined simple types.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which of the following can directly contribute to making a service composition architecture more
vulnerable to attacks?
A. Reliance on intermediaries
B. Reliance on transport-layer security
C. Reliance on open networks
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 The use of session keys and symmetric cryptography results in:
A. Increased performance degradation
B. Increased reliability degradation
C. Reduced message sizes
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.9 The Trusted Subsystem pattern is applied to a service that provides access to a database. Select the
answer that best explains why this service is still at risk of being subjected to an insufficient authorization
attack.
A. Attackers can steal confidential data by monitoring the network traffic that occurs between the service
and the database.
B. Because the Service Perimeter Guard pattern was also not applied, the database is not protected by a
firewall.
C. If an attacker gains access to the security credentials used by the service to access the database, the
attacker can access the database directly.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.10 ___________ is an industry standard that describes mechanisms for issuing, validating, renewing and
cancelling security tokens.
A. WS-Security
B. WS-Trust
C. WS-SecureConversation
D. WS-SecurityPolicy
Answer: B

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NO.11 Security policies defined using WS-SecurityPolicy can be used to convey which of the following
requirements to a service consumer?
A. Whether transport-layer or message-layer security needs to be used
B. The encryption type that needs to be used for transport-layer security
C. The algorithms that need to be used for cryptographic operations
D. The type of security token that must be used
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 Service A has recently been the victim of XPath injection attacks. Messages sent between Service A
and Service C have traditionally been protected via transport-layer security. A redesign of the service
composition architecture introduces Service B, which is positioned as an intermediary service between
Service A and Service C. The Message Screening pattern was applied to the design of Service B. As part
of the new service composition architecture, transport-layer security is replaced with message-layer
security for all services, but Service A and Service C continue to share the same encryption key. After the
new service composition goes live, Service A continues to be subjected to XPath injection attacks. What
is the reason for this?
A. The message screening logic can only work for Service C. Therefore, Service A is not protected.
B. Because message-layer security is being used, it is not possible for the message screening logic in
Service B to inspect messages without having the encryption key that is shared by Service A and Service
C.
C. XPath injection attacks are not prevented by message screening logic or message-layer security.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Service A's logic has been implemented using managed code. An attacker sends an XML bomb to
Service A. As a result, Service A's memory consumption started increasing at an alarming rate and then
decreased back to normal. The service was not affected by this attack and quickly recovered. Which of
the following attacks were potentially avoided?
A. XML parser attack
B. Buffer overrun attack
C. Insufficient authorization attack
D. Denial of service
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 The application of the Service Loose Coupling principle does not relate to the use of security policies
as part of service contracts.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following types of attack always affect the availability of a service?
A. Exception generation attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. XPath injection attack
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.1 The cloud service owner of Cloud Service A is evaluating Clouds X, Y and Z to determine which cloud
environment can offer the greatest level of reliability. All three clouds are geographically dispersed across
three separate time zones. As a result, each cloud experiences usage peaks at different times. Based on
the metrics provided, the greater the usage of a cloud, the lower its reliability. When the cloud service
owner complains to Cloud Provider A (the owner of all three clouds) that none of the clouds provide an
adequate level of reliability, Cloud Provider A suggests a solution that increases resiliency.
Which of the following statements accurately describes a solution that can be used to fulfill the resiliency
requirements of Cloud Service A.?
A. Redundant implementations of Cloud Service A are deployed in all three clouds. The failover system
mechanism and a special type of automated scaling listener mechanism are implemented to establish a
system whereby one redundant Cloud Service A implementation will automatically take over from another.
B. A cloud balancing solution is established, whereby an automated scaling listener mechanism is
implemented on each cloud in such a way that every cloud can automatically scale out to another cloud.
As a result, if reliability problems occur on any one cloud, the subsequent requests will be scaled out to
another cloud in a manner that is transparent to cloud service consumers.
C. A failover system mechanism is implemented on Cloud X, which acts as the primary point of contact for
cloud serviceconsumers. Upon failure conditions occurring, the Cloud Service A implementation on Cloud
X automatically hands over control of current and future message requests from cloud service consumers
to Cloud Y. Cloud Y retains control of cloud serviceconsumer communication until the next failure
condition occurs, at which point it hands over control to Cloud Z. Finally, if a failure condition occurs in
Cloud Z. control is handed back to Cloud X.
D. A cloud balancing solution is established, whereby a resource replication mechanism is implemented
on each cloud. This allows Cloud Service A to be automatically replicated across cloud environments,
thereby enabling each implementation of Cloud Service A to take the place of another, whenever failure
conditions occur.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Cloud Service Consumer A invokes Cloud Service A from Cloud X (owned by Cloud Provider X) (1). To
fulfill the request from Cloud Service Consumer A, Cloud Service A needs to invoke Cloud Service B that
resides on Cloud Y (owned by Cloud Provider Y) (2). After completing its processing, Cloud Service B
sends a response to Cloud Service A (3). Cloud Service A verifies the response and then finally sends its
response to Cloud Service Consumer A (4).
The guaranteed availability of the Cloud Service A implementation is 95% and the guaranteed availability
of the Cloud Service B implementation is 95%. Which of the following statements accurately describes the
actual availability that Cloud Service Consumer A can receive based on the described scenario?
A. Because Cloud Service Consumer A's response message is processed by two separate cloud
services, the combined availability increases as follows:
1.- (1 - 0.95) X (1 - 0.95) = 0.9975 or 99.75%
B. Because Cloud Service A acts as both a cloud service and cloud service consumer in order to
process Cloud Service Consumer B's request message, Cloud Service A forms a dependency on
Cloud Service B. As a result, the combined availability decreases, as follows:
0.95 X 0.95 = 0.9025 or 90.25%
C. Cloud Service Consumer A benefits from redundant cloud service implementations, thereby
increasing the guaranteed availability as follows:
1.- (1 - (0.95 - 0.1))X (1 - (0.95 - 0.1)) = 0.9775 or 97.75%
D. As a result of the dependency formed by Cloud Service Aon Cloud Service B,the combined availability
decreases significantly as follows:
(0.95 X 0.95) - 0.1 = 0.8025 or 80.25%
Answer: B

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NO.1 In an IT center with several different vendors storage arrays, virtualized networked storage with SVM
provides migration of data to less expensive tiers of storage by doing what?
A. Pooling the storage into a server virtualization model whereby different servers can emulate hosts and
tier the data.
B. Pooling the storage into a networked virtualization model zoning the virtualized storage utilizing
third-party tools.
C. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into a centralized pool and then assigning
different applications and tiers to different pools.
D. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into assigned volume groups and use
virtual servers to tier the data.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are two recommended ways of organizing pools? (Choose two.)
A. by host
B. by RAID level
C. by DPM
D. by users
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 When consolidating onto a new storage platform, what actually moves the data?
A. the Data Path Module
B. the SVM server
C. the storage array
D. the SAN switch
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are two ways that SVM supports consolidation? (Choose two.)
A. SVM can reserve space for future use on a LUN-by-LUN basis.
B. SVM can build RAID structures for enhanced data protection.
C. SVM can migrate data from multiple storage arrays onto a single storage array.
D. SVM can make snapshots of volume groups that are spread across multiple storage arrays.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 When moving existing LUNs into a pool, which feature would you use?
A. SVM multiCopy
B. SVM multiMirror
C. SVM multiView
D. SVM disk import
Answer: D

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NO.6 A warehousing company is in the process of a changeover to a new supplier thus switching out their
inventory. During this changeover, the business requires the highest performance of the inventory
database application. This database currently resides on Tier 3 storage. The customer's Tier 1 storage
has 15000 RPM Fibre Channel drives while the Tier 3 storage has 7200 RPM SATA drives. What is the
SVM solution for this customer?
A. Use the multi-pathing architecture to zone the host dedicated to the Tier 1 storage and zone a separate
host dedicated to Tier 3.
B. Non-disruptively promote the volumes from the Tier 3 storage to the Tier 1 storage before the
changeover and demote the volumes back to Tier 3 when the changeover is complete.
C. Define data policies which will automatically migrate data to Tier 1 and Tier 3 storage levels providing
instant tiering.
D. Non-disruptively place all of the 15000 RPM drives in one array and all of the 7200 RPM drives in
another array thus automatically tiering your storage to different workloads.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A long time customer just called requesting your help justifying SVM as they virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three reasons SVM's storage services would benefit this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. Rapid application recovery is easier with SVM's snapshot capabilities.
B. SVM will make provisioning easy and fast.
C. Disaster recovery will be less expensive than using traditional methods.
D. SVM will eliminate the need for tape.
E. SVM will automatically size storage to fit the data.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Your customer calls to discuss their SVM servers and their consolidation project's impact on their SVM
server port count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with
eight ports. Which statement accurately describes what the impact will be?
A. They will need four more ports on each SVM server.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each SVM server.
C. They cannot change the SVM server's port count.
D. They will need eight more ports on each SVM server.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Your client is concerned about disaster recovery. You are explaining that SVM can recover from both
physical and logical failures positioning the fact that the majority of failures are actually logical. What
would be a good example for your client?
A. file deletion
B. hardware failure
C. loss of a site due to a disaster
D. split-path architecture
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement describes tiered storage?
A. An infrastructure designed to lower the overall cost of storage by placing volumes on "fit for purpose"
storage based on defined cost, availability, and performance requirements.
B. An infrastructure designed to place data on the storage devices that have the lowest price per
megabyte ratio.
C. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a heterogeneous
model.
D. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a homogeneous model.
Answer: A

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NO.11 What are three benefits of using thin provisioning? (Choose three.)
A. reclaiming trapped capacity
B. creating empty volumes to reserve capacity
C. expanding volume capacity automatically
D. making multiple copies of volumes for backups
E. saving money on overall storage costs
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.12 Your SVM customer calls with questions about performance tuning in their VMware environment. One
of their storage arrays is not running fast enough to support the application for several days each month.
What would you recommend?
A. Buy a faster storage array and move the data with multiView.
B. Use multiCopy to copy the data to a different storage tier, stop the application and remount the data to
the copy.
C. Back up the data off a snapshot and restore it to a faster array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the application's data to a higher performing storage tier for the busy days.
Answer: D

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NO.13 A long time customer and SVM prospect just called requesting your help to virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three ways that SVM's snapshot capabilities will help this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. SVM snapshots will eliminate tape from the customer's environment.
B. SVM makes it possible to keep the point-in-time snapshots online for extended periods of time and to
recover from them quickly.
C. SVM snapshots can eliminate the need to install backup agents on every virtual machine.
D. SVM snapshots will protect from physical failures.
E. SVM snapshots can be used to reduce time required to stage, test, and debug software applications.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.14 Why would a customer use thin provisioning to manage their storage?
A. to provision more physical capacity to a LUN than is actually needed
B. to cluster LUNs of similar type into one management entity
C. to add more volumes to a management domain than are supported by hardware
D. to create large virtual volumes based on a small amount of physical capacity
Answer: D

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NO.15 An SVM prospect just called requesting that you virtualize their data center using VMware. What are
three ways that SVM's volume management capabilities will help this customer? (Choose three.)
A. SVM allows users to quickly and efficiently create and manage volumes for each of the virtual
machines.
B. SVM eliminates the need to deal with ongoing LUN management at the array level.
C. SVM will prevent the virtual servers from running out of space.
D. SVM allows storage be provisioned and reallocated after use with the same simplicity as the virtual
servers.
E. SVM will size the volumes to the actual data size.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.16 How can SVM's centralized management provide better performance?
A. by allocating capacity across RAID arrays
B. by striping volumes across RAID arrays
C. by mirroring volumes across RAID arrays
D. by provisioning additional servers
Answer: B

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NO.17 What are two functions of the Data Path Module? (Choose two.)
A. DPM processes control frames.
B. DPM processes data frames.
C. DPM manages metadata.
D. DPM translates addresses.
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 Your customer calls to discuss their DPMs and their consolidation project's impact on their DPM port
count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with eight ports.
Which statement accurately describes what they should do.?
A. They will need four more ports on each DPM.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each DPM.
C. They will need eight more ports on each DPM.
D. They will not need to change their DPM port count.
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is an advantage of using thin provisioning over traditional capacity provisioning?
A. A thin volume serves up only the data blocks called for by a read or write request.
B. A thin volume automatically provisions additional capacity for large I/O read requests.
C. A thin volume holds only the changes (writes) made by hosts to the thin volume.
D. A thin volume migrates data from an existing LUN into a new pool.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What are three functions of the SVM server? (Choose three.)
A. The SVM server processes control frames.
B. The SVM server processes data frames.
C. The SVM server manages metadata.
D. The SVM server translates addresses.
E. The SVM server moves data.
Answer: A,C,E

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Exam Code: GISF
Exam Name: GIAC (GIAC Information Security Fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 438 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following concepts represent the three fundamental principles of information security?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Privacy
B. Availability
C. Integrity
D. Confidentiality
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 John works as an Exchange Administrator for Apple Inc. The company has a Windows 2003 Active
Directory domain-based network. The network contains several Windows Server 2003 servers. Three of
them have been configured as domain controllers. John complains to the Network Administrator that he is
unable to manage group memberships. Which of the following operations master roles is responsible for
managing group memberships?
A. PDC emulator
B. Infrastructure master
C. Schema master
D. RID master
Answer: B

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NO.3 You work as a security manager for Qualxiss Inc. Your Company involves OODA loop for resolving and
deciding over company issues. You have detected a security breach issue in your company.
Which of the following procedures regarding the breach is involved in the observe phase of the OODA
loop?
A. Follow the company security guidelines.
B. Decide an activity based on a hypothesis.
C. Implement an action practically as policies.
D. Consider previous experiences of security breaches.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Your company is covered under a liability insurance policy, which provides various liability coverage for
information security risks, including any physical damage of assets, hacking attacks, etc.
Which of the following risk management techniques is your company using?
A. Risk acceptance
B. Risk transfer
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk mitigation
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following provides a credential that can be used by all Kerberos-enabled servers and
applications?
A. Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS)
B. Internet service provider (ISP)
C. Network Access Point (NAP)
D. Key Distribution Center (KDC)
Answer: D

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NO.6 You work as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based network.
You have configured an Internet access router on the network. A user complains that he is unable to
access a resource on the Web. You know that a bad NAT table entry is causing the issue. You decide to
clear all the entries on the table. Which of the following commands will you use?
A. show ip dhcp binding
B. ipconfig /flushdns
C. ipconfig /all
D. clear ip nat translation *
Answer: D

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NO.7 Based on the information given in the case study, which two authentication methods should you use to
allow customers to access their photos on the Web site?
(Click the Exhibit button on the toolbar to see the case study.)
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Basic authentication without SSL
B. Digest authentication with SSL
C. Integrated Windows authentication
D. Anonymous access
E. Basic authentication with SSL
F. Digest authentication without SSL
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 How long are cookies in effect if no expiration date is set?
A. Fifteen days
B. Until the session ends.
C. Forever
D. One year
Answer: B

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NO.9 You are a Consumer Support Technician. You are helping a user troubleshoot computer-related issues.
While troubleshooting the user's computer, you find a malicious program similar to a virus or worm. The
program negatively affects the privacy and security of the computer and is capable of damaging the
computer. Which of the following alert levels of Windows Defender is set for this program?
A. Low
B. High
C. Severe
D. Medium
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are a Product manager of Marioxiss Inc. Your company management is having a conflict with
another company Texasoftg Inc. over an issue of security policies. Your legal advisor has prepared a
document that includes the negotiation of views for both the companies. This solution is supposed to be
the key for conflict resolution. Which of the following are the forms of conflict resolution that have been
employed by the legal
advisor?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Orientation
B. Mediation
C. Negotiation
D. Arbitration
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.11 Computer networks and the Internet are the prime mode of Information transfer today. Which of the
following is a technique used for modifying messages, providing Information and Cyber security, and
reducing the risk of hacking attacks during communications and message passing over the Internet?
A. Cryptography
B. OODA loop
C. Risk analysis
D. Firewall security
Answer: A

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NO.12 You work as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. You create an application. You want to use the
application to encrypt data. You use the HashAlgorithmType enumeration to specify the algorithm used for
generating Message Authentication Code (MAC) in Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) communications.
Which of the following are valid values for HashAlgorithmType enumeration?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. MD5
B. None
C. DES
D. RSA
E. SHA1
F. 3DES
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.13 You are the project manager of SST project. You are in the process of collecting and distributing
performance information including status report, progress measurements, and forecasts. Which of the
following process are you performing?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Verify Scope
C. Report Performance
D. Control Scope
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following protocols provides secured transaction of data between two computers?
A. SSH
B. FTP
C. Telnet
D. RSH
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following protocols can help you get notified in case a router on a network fails?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: B

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NO.16 You work as an Exchange Administrator for TechWorld Inc. The company has a Windows 2008 Active
Directory-based network. The network contains an Exchange Server 2010 organization.
The messaging organization contains one Hub Transport server, one Client Access server, and two
Mailbox servers.
You are planning to deploy an Edge Transport server in your messaging organization to minimize the
attack surface. At which of the following locations will you deploy the Edge Transport server?
A. Active Directory site
B. Intranet
C. Behind the inner firewall of an organization
D. Perimeter network
Answer: D

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NO.17 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. The company is aware of various types of security attacks and wants to impede them. Hence,
management has assigned John a project to port scan the company's Web Server. For this, he uses the
nmap port scanner and issues the following command to perform idleport scanning:
nmap -PN -p- -sI IP_Address_of_Company_Server
He analyzes that the server's TCP ports 21, 25, 80, and 111 are open.
Which of the following security policies is the company using during this entire process to mitigate the risk
of hacking attacks?
A. Audit policy
B. Antivirus policy
C. Non-disclosure agreement
D. Acceptable use policy
Answer: A

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NO.18 You have successfully installed an IRM server into your environment. This IRM server will be utilized to
protect the company's videos, which are available to all employees but contain sensitive data. You log on
to the WSS 3.0 server with administrator permissions and navigate to the Operations section. What option
should you now choose so that you can input the RMS server name for the WSS 3.0 server to use.?
A. Self-service site management
B. Content databases
C. Information Rights Management
D. Define managed paths
Answer: C

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NO.19 Availability Management allows organizations to sustain the IT service availability to support the
business at a justifiable cost. Which of the following elements of Availability Management is used to
perform at an agreed level over a period of time?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Maintainability
B. Resilience
C. Error control
D. Recoverability
E. Reliability
F. Security
G. Serviceability
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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NO.20 Which of the following are the goals of the cryptographic systems?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Availability
B. Authentication
C. Confidentiality
D. Integrity
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.21 Which of the following statements are true about Dsniff?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a virus.
B. It contains Trojans.
C. It is antivirus.
D. It is a collection of various hacking tools.
Answer: B,D

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NO.22 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to test the effect of a virus on the We-are-secure server. He injects
the virus on the server and, as a result, the server becomes infected with the virus even though an
established antivirus program is installed on the server. Which of the following do you think are the
reasons why the antivirus installed on the server did not detect the virus injected by John?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The virus, used by John, is not in the database of the antivirus program installed on the ser ver.
B. The mutation engine of the virus is generating a new encrypted code.
C. John has created a new virus.
D. John has changed the signature of the virus.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.23 You work as a Network Administrator for ABC Inc. The company has a secure wireless network.
However, in the last few days, an attack has been taking place over and over again. This attack is taking
advantage of ICMP directed broadcast. To stop this attack, you need to disable ICMP directed broadcasts.
Which of the following attacks is taking place?
A. Smurf attack
B. Sniffer attack
C. Cryptographic attack
D. FMS attack
Answer: A

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NO.24 Your company is going to add wireless connectivity to the existing LAN. You have concerns about the
security of the wireless access and wish to implement encryption. Which of the following would be the
best choice for you to use?
A. WAP
B. WEP
C. DES
D. PKI
Answer: B

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NO.25 Mark is implementing security on his e-commerce site. He wants to ensure that a customer sending a
message is really the one he claims to be. Which of the following techniques will he use to ensure this?
A. Packet filtering
B. Authentication
C. Firewall
D. Digital signature
Answer: D

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NO.26 How should you configure the Regional Centers' e-mail, so that it is secure and encrypted? (Click the
Exhibit button on the toolbar to see the case study.)
A. Use EFS.
B. Use IPSec.
C. Use S/MIME.
D. Use TLS.
Answer: C

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NO.27 In a complex network, Router transfers data packets by observing some form of parameters or metrics
provided in the routing table. Which of the following metrics is NOT included in the routing table?
A. Bandwidth
B. Load
C. Delay
D. Frequency
Answer: D

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NO.28 You work as the Senior Project manager in Dotcoiss Inc. Your company has started a software project
using configuration management and has completed 70% of it. You need to ensure that the network
infrastructure devices and networking standards used in this project are installed in accordance with the
requirements of its detailed project design documentation. Which of the following procedures will you
employ to accomplish the
task?
A. Physical configuration audit
B. Configuration control
C. Functional configuration audit
D. Configuration identification
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which of the following types of virus is capable of changing its signature to avoid detection?
A. Stealth virus
B. Boot sector virus
C. Macro virus
D. Polymorphic virus
Answer: D

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NO.30 A firewall is a combination of hardware and software, used to provide security to a network. It is used
to protect an internal network or intranet against unauthorized access from the Internet or other outside
networks. It restricts inbound and outbound access and can analyze all traffic between an internal
network and the Internet. Users can configure a firewall to pass or block packets from specific IP
addresses and ports. Which of the following tools works as a firewall for the Linux 2.4 kernel?
A. IPChains
B. OpenSSH
C. Stunnel
D. IPTables
Answer: D

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